Sunday, May 17, 2020
Project Management Professional Practice Test
The Project Management Institute is a global project management organization. The group offers Project Management Professional certification that shows competency in a variety of project management and other business-related areas. The PMP certification process includes an exam based on the groups Project Management Body of Knowledge guide. Below are sample questions and answers that you might find on the PMP exam. Questions The following 20 questions are from Whiz Labs, which provides information and sample tests -- for a fee -- for the PMP and other examinations. Question 1 Which of the following is a tool used to secure expert judgment? B.. Delphi techniqueC. Expected value techniqueD. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Question 2 Based on the information provided below, which project would you recommend pursuing? Project I, with BCR (Benefit Cost ratio) of 1:1.6;Project II, with NPV of US $ 500,000;Project III, with IRR (Internal rate of return) of 15%Project IV, with opportunity cost of US $ 500,000. A. Project IB. Project IIIC. Either project II or IVD. Can not say from the data provided Question 3 What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is included? A. Create a contingency planB. Create a risk management planC. Create a WBSD. Create a scope statement Question 4 What kind of a relationship is implied when completion of a successor is dependent on initiation of its predecessor? Choices:A. FSB. FFC. SSD. SF Question 5 What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project completion? A. Scope verificationB. Complete a scope statementC. Scope definitionD. Risk management plan Question 6 An organization is certified to a stringent environmental standard and uses that as the key differentiator with its competitors. Alternative identification during scope planning for a particular project has thrown up an expeditious approach to achieve a project need, but this involves a risk of environmental contamination. The team evaluates that the likelihood of the risk is very low. What should the project team do? A. Drop the alternative approachB. Work out a mitigation planC. Procure an insurance against the riskD. Plan all precautions to avoid the risk Question 7 The following three tasks form the entire critical path of the project network. The three estimates of each of these tasks are tabulated below. How long would the project take to complete expressed with an accuracy of one standard deviation? Task    Optimistic     Most likely     PessimisticA                15                      25                 47B                12                      22                 35C                16                      27                 32 A. 75.5B. 75.5 /- 7.09C. 75.5 /- 8.5D. 75.5 /- 2.83 Question 8 After a study of the work processes on a project, a quality audit team reports to the project manager that irrelevant quality standards were being used by the project, which might lead to rework. What was the objective of the project manager in initiating this study? A. Quality controlB. Quality planningC. Checking adherence to processesD. Quality assurance Question 9 Which of the following provides the foundation for team development? A. MotivationB. Organizational developmentC. Conflict ManagementD. Individual Development Question 10 Which of the following is NOT an input to project plan execution? A. Work authorization systemB. Project planC. Corrective actionD. Preventive action Question 11 A project manager would find team development the most difficult in which form of organization? A. Weak Matrix organizationB. Balanced Matrix organizationC. Projectized organizationD. Tight Matrix organization Question 12 The project manager of a large multi-location software project team has 24 members, out of which 5 are assigned to testing. Due to recent recommendations by an organizational quality audit team, the project manager is convinced to add a quality professional to lead the test team at additional cost, to the project. The project manager is aware of the importance of communication, for the success of the project and takes this step of introducing additional communication channels, making it more complex, in order to assure quality levels of the project. How many additional communication channels are introduced as a result of this organizational change in the project? A. 25B. 24C. 1D. 5 Question 13 Once the project is complete, the complete set of project records should be put in which of the following? A. Project ArchivesB. DatabaseC. Storage roomD. Project Report Question 14 Which of the following is a common format for performance reporting? A. Pareto DiagramsB. Bar chartsC. Responsibility Assignment MatricesD. Control Charts Question 15 If the cost variance is positive and the schedule variance is also positive, this indicates the: A. Project is under budget and behind scheduleB. Project is over budget and behind scheduleC. Project is under budget and ahead of scheduleD. Project is over budget and ahead of schedule Question 16 During execution of a project, an identified risk event occurs that results in additional cost and time. The project had provisions for contingency and management reserves. How should these be accounted for? A. Contingency reservesB. Residual risksC. Management reservesD. Secondary risks Question 17 Which one of the following is the last step of project closing? A. Client has accepted the productB. Archives are completeC. Client appreciates your productD. Lessons learned are documented Question 18 Who should be involved in the creation of lessons learned, at the closure of a project? A. StakeholdersB. Project teamC. Management of the performing organizationD. Project office Question 19 An organization has recently started outsourcing work to a low cost, high value, engineering center located in a different country. Which of the following should the project manager provide for the team as a proactive measure? A. A training course on the laws of the countryB. A course on linguistic differencesC. An exposure to the cultural differencesD.A communication management plan Question 20 While reviewing the progress, the project manager assesses that an activity has been missed out from the implementation plan. A milestone, scheduled to be achieved within another week, would be missed with the current implementation plan. Which of the following is the next best action for the project manager in this situation? A. Report the error and the expected delayB. Omit the status update on the milestoneC. Report the error and the planned recovery actionsD. Assess alternatives to meet the milestone Answers The answers to the PMP sample questions are from Scribd, a fee-based information website. Answer 1 B - Explanation: The Delphi technique is a commonly used tool to secure expert judgment while initiating a project. Answer 2 B - Explanation: Project III has an IRR of 15 percent, which means the revenues from the project equal the cost expended at an interest rate of 15 percent. This is a definitive and a favorable parameter, and hence can be recommended for selection. Answer 3 C - Explanation: A WBS is a deliverable-oriented grouping of project components that organizes and defines the total scope of the project. Answer 4 D - Explanation: A start-to-finish (SF) relationship between two activities implies that the completion of a successor is dependent on the initiation of its predecessor. Answer 5 B - Explanation: The project team must complete a scope statement for developing a common understanding of the project scope among stakeholders. This lists project deliverables -- summary level sub-products, whose full and satisfactory delivery marks the completion of the project. Answer 6 A - Explanation: The organization’s reputation being at stake, the threshold for such a risk would be very low Answer 7 B - Explanation: The critical path is the longest duration path through a network and determines the shortest time to complete the project. The PERT estimates of the tasks listed are 27, 22.5 26. Therefore, the length of the critical path of the project is 2722.526 75.5. Answer 8 D - Explanation: Determining the validity of quality standards, followed by the project is a quality assurance activity. Answer 9 D - Explanation: Individual development (managerial and technical) is the foundation of a team. Answer 10 A - Explanation: A Project plan is the basis of project plan execution and is a primary input. Answer 11 A - Explanation: In a functional organization, the project team members have dual reporting to two bosses -- the project manager and the functional manager. In a weak matrix organization, the power rests with the functional manager. Answer 12 A - Explanation: Number of communication channels with â€Å"n†members n*(n-1)/2. Originally the project has 25 members (including the project manager), which makes the total communication channels as 25*24/2 300. With the addition of the quality professional as a member of the project team, the communication channels increase to 26*25/2 325. Therefore, the additional channels as a result of the change, that is, 325-300 25. Answer 13 A - Explanation: Project records should be prepared for archiving by the appropriate parties. Answer 14 B - Explanation: Common formats for Performance Reports are, bar charts (also called Gantt Charts), S-curves, histograms, and tables. Answer 15 C - Explanation: Positive Schedule Variance means the project is ahead of schedule; Negative Cost Variance means the project is over-budget. Answer 16 A - Explanation: The question is about correct accounting for risk events that occur and updating the reserves. Reserves are meant for making provisions in cost and schedule, to accommodate for consequences of risk events. Risk events are classified as unknown unknowns or known unknown, where â€Å"unknown unknowns†are risks that were are not identified and accounted for, while known unknowns are risks that were identified and provisions were made for them. Answer 17 B - Explanation: Archiving is the last step in the project closing. Answer 18 A - Explanation: Stakeholders include everyone who is actively involved in the project or whose interests may be affected as a result of the project execution or completion. The project team creates the lessons learned on the project. Answer 19 C - Explanation: Understanding cultural differences is the first step towards an effective communication amongst the project team involving outsourced work from a different country. So, what is needed in this case is an exposure to the cultural differences, which is being mentioned as choice C. Answer 20 D - Explanation: Choice D, that is, assess alternatives to meet the milestone indicates confronting the issue with an attempt to resolve the issue. Hence this would be the best approach.
Wednesday, May 6, 2020
How Emile Durkheim s Theory Of Morality And Comparing And...
In this essay, it will be looking at how Emile Durkheim s theory of morality and comparing and contrasting it with Zygmunt Bauman s postmodern ethics. Durkheim s theory of morality is set out to understand morality as a social phenomenon. Durkheim experienced social change in his era and his theory of morality looks at ideas concerning change in social and existential conditions. Durkheim, (1953. p.37) states at morality begins with membership of a group, whatever that group may be. When this premise is accepted the characteristics of the moral fact become explicable. Firstly Durkheim s theory looks to the extent of how the individual needs society to be able to fully participate in day to day life and then on the other hand how society is greater than any individual, which leads to people looking to better themselves disregarding their own beliefs. Secondly looks at how society constitutes a moral authority by demonstrating a overall general rule to regulate behaviour. There have been objections to this stating that it subjugates the mind to prevailing moral opinion (Durkheim, p.38). The theory itself, looks at orientation towards something collective, so morality is moral feelings of selfless care. Something so that the individual would sacrifice themselves for something but there is a generosity about it, self-sacrificing element to morality but if morality is not self interest but the opposite. So if there is no respected moral philosopher who would sayShow MoreRelatedOrganisational Theory230255 Words  | 922 Pages. Organization Theory Challenges and Perspectives John McAuley, Joanne Duberley and Phil Johnson . This book is, to my knowledge, the most comprehensive and reliable guide to organisational theory currently available. What is needed is a text that will give a good idea of the breadth and complexity of this important subject, and this is precisely what McAuley, Duberley and Johnson have provided. They have done some sterling service in bringing together the very diverse strands of work
Cholera and Typhoid Fever
Question: Cholera and Typhoid fever: Is there a misleading similarity? Answer: Introduction Cholera and Typhoid fever are major public health problems especially in developing countries as well as developed world. In 2016 more than five million people suffered from cholera and typhoid fever. Mortality due to cholera and typhoid fever occurs usually due to loss of fluid and secondary complications respectively. While they both are caused by bacterial infections and transmitted by the faeco oral route (from faeces to mouth) they are in truth, very dissimilar in various aspects. So, although cholera and typhoid fever are caused by bacteria and both microbes share similar transmission route, the people infected by cholera and typhoid fever exhibit different symptoms, affects different organ systems, have difference in the pathogenesis of disease and have different treatment regimen.This essay addresses the differences and similarities between cholera and typhoid fever on the basis of etiology, transmission, pathogenesis, symptoms, diagnostics, treatment, prevention and control. Body Both cholera and typhoid fever are diseases caused by bacteria. Vibrio cholerae serotype O1 and serotype O139 synonym Bengal causes cholera and Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi causes typhoid fever (WHO, 2008; WHO 2010). A similar but often less severe form of typhoid fever, paratyphoid fever, is caused bySalmonellaParatyphi A, B or C. Vibrio are small, gram-negative comma shaped rods, having single polar flagellum whereas Salmonella are gram-negative motile straight rods. Cholera and typhoid fever are transmitted by faecally contaminated food or water, by the faeco-oral route. The faeco oral route means pathogen can spread directly from contaminated hands touching the mouth and transmitting the pathogen directly :direct transmission; orthrough eating or drinking food or water contaminated with the infectious agents, or using utensils washed with contaminated water, ie indirect transmission. As both cholera and typhoid fever are diseases caused due to contamination in drinking wate r, poor personal hygiene and lack of sanitation, the incidence of them in Australia is limited. In Australia typhoid fever (approx. 150 cases each year in comparison to 21 million cases world wide) (Basnayat et al, 2005) and cholera (and even lesser in comparison to a total of 172454 cases worldwide) (NNDSS, 2010) are both predominantly travel related disease with more frequency in people travelling from the Indian subcontinent (Dale, et al, 2010) Cholera is an enteric disease (affects the gut) where as typhoid is a systemic infection (spread throughout) due to difference in their pathogenesis. When the bacteria Vibrio cholerae enters the intestine it releases cholera toxin which enters the enterocytes.On its entry in the enterocyte, the toxin induces adenylate cyclase to produce cAMP.The increased generation of cAMP stimulates cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR), resulting in excretion of excess water and ions from entrocytes causing watery diarrhea.In case o f typhoid fever, S. typhi penetrate the enterocytes and then enter the macrophages. In these phagocytic cells S.typhi replicates before being released into the bloodstream which produces a systemic infection (Todar, 2012). Symptoms of cholera are characterized by acute onset of profuse watery diarrhea (described as "rice-water" stools) and frequently accompanied with vomiting. On the other hand, typhoid fever is characterized by prolonged low grade fever, intestinal dysfunction of the gut (constipation in adults, diarrhea in children), headache, a general feeling of discomfort and anorexia. Diagnosis of cholera and typhoid can be done by bacterial culture of stool and blood respectively. Serological testing may be also done to confirm cholera and typhoid fever. In case of cholera O1 or O139 antisera are measured and in case of typhoid fever Widal test can be done which estimates agglutinating antibody levels against O and H antigens. Prompt fluid replacement therapy is the core of t reatment of cholera to cure dehydration which occurs because of watery diarrhea. Antibiotics such as tetracycline, ciprofloxacin, doxycycline and co-trimoxazole may also be given to decrease the severity and duration of diarrhea In case of typhoid fever fluoroquinolones such as ofloxacin, ciprofloxacin, fleroxacin, perfloxacin are the antibiotics of choice. Rampant use of antibiotics may lead to formation of drug resistant pathogens. As both cholera and typhoid fever are waterborne and foodborne diseases, the principal measure is to ensure proper sanitation. Access to good quality and sufficient supply of water for drinking and for household chores will also prevent such diseases. Health education is crucial in making the public aware of dangers of diseases like cholera and typhoid and helping them in adapting good personal hygiene habits to prevent spread of diseases. Vaccines are also available for cholera and typhoid fever. Two types of oral cholera vaccines and a live oral vacci ne Ty2la is available for typhoid. Vi polysaccharide, a typhoid fever vaccine is also available which can be administered s.c. or i.m. Conclusion In summary, although Cholera and typhoid are similar but different, they are major public health problems, mostly in the developing world, emergence of drug resistant strains and worldwide spread due to global travel has renewed interest in these diseases. Public health awareness, better sanitation and good vaccine strategies are needed to minimize their public health impact. References Cholera.(n.d.).Retrieved from https://www.immunise. health.gov.au/internet/ immunise/publishing.nsf/Content/Handbook10-home~handbook10part4~ha Basnyat, B., Maskey, AP., Zimmerman, MD., Murdoch, DR. (2005). Enteric (typhoid) fever in travelers. Clinical Infectious Diseases, 41:1467-72. Dale, K., Kirk, M., Sinclair, M., Hall, R., L, K. (2010 ). Reported waterborne outbreaks of gastrointestinal disease in Australia are predominantly associated with recreational exposure. Aust N Z J Public Health, 527-30. Todar K, (2012). Online textbook on Bacteriology. www.textbookofbacteriology.net NNDSS Annual Report Writing Group. (2010). Australias notifiable disease status, 2008: annual report of the National Notifiable Diseases Surveillance System. Communicable Diseases Intelligence, 34:157-224. Typhoid. (n.d.). Retrieved from https://www.immunise. health.gov.au/internet/immunise/publishing.nsf/Content/Handbook10- home~handbook10part4~handbook10-4-21 World Health Organization (WHO). (2010). Cholera vaccines: WHO position paper. Weekly Epidemiological Record, 85:117-28. World Health Organization (WHO). (2008). Typhoid vaccines: WHO position paper. Weekly Epidemiological Record , 83:49-59
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